For example, English speakers commonly mix up your/you’re or there/their/they’re. I’m curious about similar mistakes in other languages.

  • okiloki@feddit.de
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    10 months ago

    I really hate when native English speakers use could of or would of. It makes no sense and sounds completely wrong, yet some people claim it’s just a minor mistake.

  • neutron@thelemmy.club
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    10 months ago

    In Korean we have these conjugated forms. They both sound the same:

    1. 나아 [na.a] (from 낫다) be/become better
    2. 낳아 [na.a] (from 낳다) give birth (to a baby)

    So when given A as an example:

    (A) 감기에 걸렸어요. I got a cold.
    (B) 빨리 나으세요! Hope you get better soon!
    © 빨리 낳으세요! Hope you give birth soon!

    For some reason Koreans across all ages write C instead of B by mistake. It became a national joke at this point and some do it ironically on purpose. I used to teach Korean. Imagine my face every time.

    There are more but I’m on my phone. Will do more later.

  • Björn Tantau@swg-empire.de
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    10 months ago

    In German people tend to increase “only” (das einzige). As in, they say something is the “onliest” (das einzigste). It’s usually a good indicator of someone’s education.

    In many regions it is common to do comparisons with “as” (wie). As in “My dog is bigger as yours” instead of “My dog is bigger than yours”. The most infuriating thing about this is that most people doing that mistake don’t even acknowledge that it is one. At least people who say “onliest” can be convinced that it is wrong.

    Technically not an error but still annoying is to append an apostrophe and an s to a name to indicate the genitive. Like in “Anna’s food is good”. In German that should be written as “Annas Essen ist gut”. But due to many people making the same mistake (I guess also because we’re used to it from English sentences) it has been allowed to use an apostrophe. So in that case I’m just a grumpy old guy.

    • DirigibleProtein@aussie.zone
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      10 months ago

      In many regions it is common to do comparisons with “as” (wie). As in “My dog is bigger as yours” instead of “My dog is bigger than yours”.

      I’m (re-)learning Yiddish at the moment, and “as (wie)” is a common construction; it’s interesting to see which words and sentence formats are common (between German and Yiddish), and which aren’t. I wonder if that’s where this usage comes from.

    • Elise@beehaw.org
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      10 months ago

      In Dutch it’s also common to use als (as) instead of dan (than). Technically it’s wrong though.

    • ElmarsonTheThird@feddit.de
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      10 months ago

      I opened the thread to see if someone already posted this. Glad I’m not the onliest german to be annoyed by this.

  • Illecors@lemmy.cafe
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    10 months ago

    Less. It’s used eveywhere, although should only be used with uncountable nouns.

    Less drama is prefered.

    Fewer items left on the shopping list.

    • CanadaPlus@futurology.today
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      10 months ago

      There’s a certain level of irony in correcting people’s language while not reading the original question properly yourself.

  • [email protected]@sh.itjust.works
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    10 months ago

    I know you’re asking for such errors in other languages, but I find it interesting that some of the common english errors are more frequent with native english speakers than with learners of english as a second language.

    A good example of that is using “of” instead of “have”.
    Should of… of what?? It makes no sense to me how someone could confuse the two.

    Having learned english as a second language, I learned to read and write it before learning to speak it.
    On the other hand, I’d expect native speakers to have learned spoken english before learning written english.
    I think this difference changes which errors someone is likely to make.
    Native speakers confuse of/have more because they heard it long before writing it.
    People who learned it later are less likely to make that mistake, although they’re more likely for some others.

    TL;DR: Native speakers are more likely to make mistakes that are homonyms. Of/have, your/you’re, etc.

    As for the spirit of your question, I’ll go with french.

    Almost every noun in french is gendered.
    Objects, body parts, concepts, ideas, pretty much anything and everything is gendered.
    It’s also super obvious whenever someone doesn’t use the correct gender for anything.
    It’s also hard to explain to anyone.
    There might be a logic behind it, but I don’t know how to summarize any of it.
    I just know it, but couldn’t tell you why.

    Some of those make no fucking sense either.
    It has mostly nothing to do with women or men or gebder roles and identity, it just is.
    “Jam” is a feminine noun, yet “butter” is masculine.
    “Bread” is masculine, but a “loaf” is feminine.
    The noun for each and every season are masculine nouns, but the word “season” itself is a feminine noun.
    Also, a “vagina” is a masculine noun, because reasons? Weird.
    Various different words for “testicles” vary between masculine and feminine.

    It’s all super obvious to anyone who speaks french, but I never managed to explain it to any speaker of a non-gendered language like english without breaking their minds.

    • Paragone@lemmy.ml
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      10 months ago

      I’ve been told that to start a fight in Francophones, just demand to know whether grapefruit ( pamplemousse, iirc ), is male or female…

      : P

      The book “The Alphabet Versus The Goddess” by Leonard Shlain, makes the point that women’s-rights simply don’t progress as quickly, in countries which have gendered languages…

      So, Anglo cultures pushed women’s-rights, whereas Latin cultures … won’t, don’t, drag their heels, etc…

      That book is now a couple ?decades? old?

      It’s still true.

      Conditioning an entire population’s System-1 ( Daniel Kahneman’s “Thinking Fast & Slow”, the System-1 is the default-instinct & the trained-now-automatic-expertise system, it also is the system that is both addiction & prejudice ) into gendering everything, automatically, may well prevent equal-validity from ever having place…

      Mind you, I now want to see which Nordic/Scandi languages are gendered, & which Middle-East languages are gendered, to see if that holds in those parts of the world, not just in the Americas…

      … digging …

      https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gender_in_Danish_and_Swedish

      https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grammatical_gender

      ( that isn’t a quick read… may come back to it some day… )

      Bingo!

      “The grammatical gender of nouns is one of two: a noun may be masculine or it may be feminine, and there is no neutral option. Moreover, masculinity is the default grammatical gender in Arabic and a word does not have to have anything special in order to reflect this. Femininity, on the other hand, is not default and a noun would have to have something special to reflect this gender in Arabic.”

      from

      https://www.learnarabiconline.com/gender/

      So, there is ZERO hope of equal-validity in Arabic culture, because the language programs Arabic people’s System-1 into 2 exclusive validity-categories, with male being inherently more-valid, by established language-habit.

      What about Hebrew?

      https://www.timesofisrael.com/in-an-increasingly-nonbinary-world-is-gendered-hebrew-willing-to-adapt/

      No wonder women can’t get equal-validity in Jewish culture…

      ( I read a Jewess’s writing ~ Nobody EVERY celebrated the birth of a Jewish girl: only boys are celebrated ~ … which explains the damage in the stereotypical “Jewish mother”, a woman whose validity has been contempted by all in her culture, until the damage is her most defining feature… )

      So, it looks like equal-rights/equal-validity for women is … baseless, in some/many cultures…

      Interesting, but depressing.

      : \

      • Zagorath@aussie.zone
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        10 months ago

        So, there is ZERO hope of equal-validity in Arabic culture, because the language programs Arabic people’s System-1 into 2 exclusive validity-categories, with male being inherently more-valid, by established language-habit.

        That sounds like some Strong Sapir-Whorf thinking. And the Strong Sapir-Whorf hypothesis is pretty roundly rejected by most linguists.

      • [email protected]@sh.itjust.works
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        10 months ago

        So, Anglo cultures pushed women’s-rights, whereas Latin cultures … won’t, don’t, drag their heels, etc…

        That’s mostly bullshit imo.

        Grammar itself doesn’t necessarily hold back progress with gender identities and equality.
        Languages evolve.
        French can have gender neutral pronouns, which can make sense for referring to people of various gender identities.
        Meanwhile, a gender neutral “table” is a bit moot. While a table is a feminine noun, such an object has no identity, its “gender” has nothing with social constructs, with gender roles or identities, not with women in general. A noun isn’t feminine or masculine because of its characteristics, but because of its phonetics and in some cases, plain old habit.
        Synonyms can have different grammatical genders.

        I’m quite certain that women are better off living in France or in French Canada than most places in the anglo US, not that it’s a high bar on the subject of women rights.

  • Lvxferre@lemmy.ml
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    10 months ago

    Due to Linguistics I spend more time trying to analyse the feature than judging it.

    That said, two things that grind my gears, when it comes to Portuguese:

    • Usage of the gerund for the future tense; e.g. *estaremos enviando (roughly, “we will send”) instead of “vamos enviar” or “enviaremos”. My issue here is not grammatical, but that this construction usually marks lack of commitment.
    • “Cuspido e escarrado” (spat and coughed up) to highlight the striking resemblance between two things or people. When the saying is supposed to be “esculpido em Carrara” (sculpted in Carrara).
    • Lupec@lemm.ee
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      10 months ago

      Good points overall! I’d add that in my opinion “estaremos enviando” is closer to “we will be sending”, which also better conveys the odd, misplaced telemarketer politeness vibes it carries.

      • Lvxferre@lemmy.ml
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        10 months ago

        we will be sending

        This. I was struggling to convey the aspect, but you got it right IMO. And, pragmatically, it’s more like “we might be sending”, with that might highlighting that it probably won’t.

  • randint@lemmy.frozeninferno.xyz
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    10 months ago

    I’m a native speaker of Mandarin Chinese from Taiwan. Some people often mix up 在 (zài) and 再 (zài) in writing. It’s a bit hard to explain their definitions since they are merely function words (words that have little lexical meaning and express grammatical relationships among other words within a sentence), so I’m just gonna copy and paste their definitions from an online dictionary:

    在: to exist; to be alive / (of sb or sth) to be (located) at / (used before a verb to indicate an action in progress)
    再: again; once more; re- / second; another / then (after sth, and not until then) / no matter how … (followed by an adjective or verb, and then (usually) 也 (yě) or 都 (dōu) for emphasis)

    As you probably have noticed, their meanings don’t overlap at all. The only reason some people mix them up is because they are homophones.

    Another typo some… let’s just say, less educated, people often make is 因該 (yīn’gāi). The correct word is 應該 (yīnggāi), meaning should; must. 因該 is never correct. You can think of 因該 as the Chinese version of the much dreaded “should of.” The reason is that the distinction of -in and -ing is slowly fading away in Taiwan (it is still very much thriving in other Chinese-speaking societies), and some people just type too sloppily to care.

    By the way, I should mention that 在, 再, and 應該 are very basic words, probably one of the first 500 words a non-native speaker learns.

    • CarrotsHaveEars@lemmy.ml
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      10 months ago

      Ah, classical mistakes when they write instead of typing. At least when they type they can suggestions from the IME, hinting they might be making a mistake.

      Those ‘similar’ words you mentioned all have different tone or vowel in Cantonese. Not at all close to each other. I bet they sound slightly different too in Banlamgu, if you happen to speak that.

      • randint@lemmy.frozeninferno.xyz
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        10 months ago

        I don’t speak Bân-lâm-gú unfortunately. I just looked up those words, and they do sound slightly different!

        • 在: tsāi
        • 再: tsài
        • 應該: ing-kai
        • 因: in

        (For Chinese learners reading this, please note that the tone markers in the romanization of Bân-lâm-gú (Southern Min, a group of languages including Hokkien, Taiwanese, etc.) is different from those used in Pinyin for Mandarin.)

        I also looked up how these words are pronounced in Cantonese. They sure are really different! Mandarin really does have a lot more pairs of homophones and near-homophones compared to other dialects.

        On a semi-related note, I think it’s really sad that the majority of Chinese dialects are slowly being replaced by Mandarin.

        • toastal@lemmy.ml
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          10 months ago

          On a semi-related note, I think it’s really sad that the majority of Chinese dialects are slowly being replaced by Mandarin.

          It really is. If not too disruptive, I always make a speaker clarify “which Chinese language” as I guess the propaganda + ignorance has worked leading many to believe there is just one language of China. …And it’s not just English treating it this way either.